Previous Year UPSC Questions – Polity – Set 2

1. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:   [2021]

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2. With reference to India, consider the following statements: [2022]

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3. Consider the following statements: [2022]

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament? [2014]

5. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements: [2012]

1. He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/she need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/ her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

6. Consider the following statements: [2012]

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

7. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: [2015]

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

8. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by [2017]

9. Consider the following statements: [2017]

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

10. Consider the following statements: [2019]

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

11. Consider the following statements: [2015]

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

12. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? [2017]

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code below:

13. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then [2018]

14. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties [2013]

15. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?  [2013]

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

16. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extralegal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India? (1995)

1. The National Development Council
2. The Governor’s Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. Inter-State Council

Codes:

17. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states? (1995)

1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in the Parliament
3. Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council in a State

Codes:

18. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996: (1999)

1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of Indian shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six year from the date of conviction
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament Constituency
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate

Which of the above statements are correct?

19. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? (2004)

20. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union? (2004)

21. The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the: (2002 )

22. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?  (1995)

23. Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council even though the Constitution? (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it? (1995)

24. Which of the following is the State in which the Lokayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit? (1995)

25. Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2002)

1. The Chief Election Commission and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier

Which of these statements are correct?